Recycling this post for any info that the community can provide:
Question of the night: if a house is in pre-foreclosure (VA LOAN) and has a balance owed of $10K below Market Value, and a best wholesale offer (starting) would be about $65k less than MV, would the owner bite?
Looking at the docs, I am not sure the owner sell with the VA loan in foreclosure? Educate me!! 📚
Oh, and hit like!! 😎