I've been arbitraging a house for a year come October. I'm changing my business model to where I don't sign a 12 month lease and just sign a contract per demand. (If the tenant is needing 1 month to start or extensions) The landlord wants to market it unfurnished but with an option to be furnished with everything that's been there over the last year. He's asked me how would I price the "furnished" part. HOW IN THE WORLD do I do this? I mean his rent is $3600 unfurnished. That's what I paid for a year and then did mid term for $8,500 - $10,500. Do I tell him it'll be $4,900? LOL, I really am at a loss here. He says he has a potential tenant for 6 months. I don't want to kill his deal but where's the logic?
Keep in mind, If I book the same place I'll be charging my standard fees and pay him his $3600.