Need some clinical brains on this one. I'm working with a volleyball athlete with a 2-year history of anterior shoulder pain that has consistently been diagnosed as long head biceps tendinopathy. About 6 months ago, she underwent a 7–11 o'clock SLAP/labral repair with four anchors. Three weeks after surgery, she told me the surgery hadn't changed her pain at all—it was still in the exact same spot over the long head of the biceps. She's now seen 7 different doctors, had 4 MRIs, and none of them have provided a conclusive answer. On evaluation, she had: • 7/10 pain at 90° of glenohumeral external rotation over the long head of the biceps tendon. • Significant tenderness to palpation over the biceps tendon and throughout the anterior deltoid. • Pain reproduced with shoulder flexion, shoulder extension, resisted glenohumeral internal rotation, passive shoulder extension, and resisted elbow flexion. Treatment included soft tissue work to the anterior deltoid, biceps, pec minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres group, and latissimus dorsi. We also performed sternoclavicular joint mobilizations, glenohumeral joint mobilizations, thoracic mobilizations to improve extension, and corrected a right hip hike of approximately 2 inches. Immediately afterward, her glenohumeral external rotation improved to 125°, and her pain dropped from 7/10 to 4/10. The fact that the pain changed immediately makes me think there's still a modifiable mechanical component, but I'm curious how others would approach this. If this patient walked into your clinic tomorrow, what would be your next assessment or intervention? What do you think we're potentially missing?