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A 38 year old lady is troubled by lymphoedema that occurred following a block dissection of the groin for malignant melanoma many years previously. Despite therapy with compression bandages she has persistent lower leg swelling impairing her activities of daily living. She has no evidence of recurrent malignancy. Lymphoscintography demonstrates occlusion of the groin lymphatics. However, the distal lymphatic system appears healthy. Which of the following options could be considered?

An 83 year old lady with a significant cardiac history is admitted with rest pain and bilateral leg ulcers. Imaging demonstrates bilateral occlusion of both common iliac arteries that are unsuitable for stenting. What is the most appropriate intervention?

Last lecture of Urosurgery

15. A 45-year-old man presents with backache and leg pain due to a prolapsed lumbar intervertebral disc. The pain, which is aggravated by coughing and sneezing, radiates to the lateral aspect of the foot. On examination, there is weakness of the plantar flexors of the foot, which nerve root is most likely to be involved? (Sep 2016)