Good afternoon everyone. Starting today, I’m posting a new clinical case every week in this community. No slides, no lecture format - just a real scenario, an ECG, and a question. The format Sumbel asked for. If it works for you too, tell me below and I’ll make it daily. Here’s Case #1. The scenario: You’re the FY1 on call. It’s 8am Monday. You’re called to see a 67-year-old woman on the medical ward. She was admitted yesterday with two days of palpitations and mild breathlessness. Otherwise stable. No chest pain. Background of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Her observations this morning: HR 138, BP 102/68, O2 sats 96% on air, RR 18, afebrile. The nurse hands you this morning’s ECG. ECG findings: • No discernible P waves • Irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm • Ventricular rate approximately 138 bpm • Narrow QRS complexes throughout • No ST changes Three questions for you. Answer in the comments: 1. What’s the diagnosis? 2. She’s been in this rhythm for over 48 hours. What’s the single most important thing you need to establish before cardioverting her? 3. Her BP is 102/68. Does that change your management? If so, how? No wrong answers here. This is a safe space to think out loud. I’ll post the full discussion and teaching points in 24 hours - including the one thing most junior doctors miss in this exact scenario. If you want to tag a colleague who would benefit from working through this, do it below. The more people in the room, the better the discussion. Drop your answers 👇