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MRCS A
158 members • Free
21 contributions to MRCS A
2d •
q2
A 38 year old lady is troubled by lymphoedema that occurred following a block dissection of the groin for malignant melanoma many years previously. Despite therapy with compression bandages she has persistent lower leg swelling impairing her activities of daily living. She has no evidence of recurrent malignancy. Lymphoscintography demonstrates occlusion of the groin lymphatics. However, the distal lymphatic system appears healthy. Which of the following options could be considered?
Poll
4 members have voted
1 like • 13h
This treatment is often most successful in earlier stages before severe tissue fibrosis has occurred
2d •
q1
An 83 year old lady with a significant cardiac history is admitted with rest pain and bilateral leg ulcers. Imaging demonstrates bilateral occlusion of both common iliac arteries that are unsuitable for stenting. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Poll
4 members have voted
1 like • 13h
the most appropriate intervention is a surgical extra-anatomic bypass (such as a femorofemoral or axillofemoral bypass), typically combined with distal revascularization or wound care.
2d •
Fq13
A 52-year-old man is found to have multiple myeloma. What skull X-ray appearances would be characteristic? (Sep 2016)
Poll
4 members have voted
0 likes • 15h
The hallmark skull X-ray appearance of multiple myeloma is the "raindrop skull," which is characterized by multiple, small, well-defined, circular "punched-out" lytic lesions scattered across the skull vault
1 like • 15h
🙌🏻
3d •
q1
An 18 year old lady presents with extensive varicose veins of her left leg. There is associated port wine staining. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Poll
3 members have voted
2 likes • 3d
KTS is a rare congenital vascular disorder characterized by a classic triad of clinical features *Port-wine stain (capillar malformation) *Varicose veins (venous malformations) *Soft-tissue and bony hypertroph (overgrowth of the affected limb)
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